ALLWRITE-TESTING
Austin PD Corporal/Detective - 2017
Sample Test


Following are 20 multiple-choice questions. Select the best answer for each question. There is one and only one correct answer for each question.

Each question in this sample test is based on one of the documents in the Official Reading List for the Corporal/Detective's examination. Answer each question based on the text or document from which it was taken. Following each question, in bold face, is the page and paragraph or section from which the question was taken.

The test preparation workshop for the Corporal/Detective's Examination will consist of five original practice tests averaging 100 questions. Three of the tests will be administered in class under realistic test conditions and two tests will be given via the Internet.

There is a link to the Answer Key at the end of the test.

1. Any complaint by a subject that an officer caused pain or injury shall be treated as a response to resistance force incident, except:

A. complaints of minor discomfort from unresisted handcuffing.
B. pain or injury related to a pre-existing condition.
C. self-inflicted injuries.
D. All of the above.

APD Policies; p. 51, 200.2 (d)

2. Which of the following statements about the Firearm Discharge Policy is not correct?

A. For any intentional firearm discharge against a person, regardless of whether the person is hit, the incident shall be handled as a Level I Force Incident.
B. Officers shall only leave a position of cover when a moving vehicle is being used as a weapon against the officer or others, and the use of deadly force is necessary.
C. An officer has the right to use deadly force directed at the operator of a vehicle when it is reasonably perceived that the vehicle is being used as a weapon against the officer or others.
D. A specific warning that deadly force will be used is not required by this policy; only that a warning be given if feasible.

APD Policies; pp. 56-57, 202.1.1, last para., 202.1.3 (c)(d), 202.2

3. ______ are responsible for verifying the classification of Body Worn Camera recordings for assigned incidents within 30 days of the recording.

A. Detectives
B. Sergeants
C. Lieutenants
D. Any of the above.

APD Policies; p. 131, 303 (e)

4. For a vehicle search incident to arrest, officers may examine the contents of any opened or closed container within the passenger compartment, provided:

A. the container is within reaching distance of the arrestee and the arrestee is unsecured at the time of the search.
B. time and circumstances do not allow the officer to obtain a search warrant.
C. there is a clear articulable link between the purpose of the search and the reason for the arrest.
D. Courts have ruled that only opened containers may be searched incident to arrest without obtaining a search warrant.

APD Policies; p. 149, 306.6 (b)(4)

5. Under what circumstances is it permissible for an officer to ask an individual to identify their race or ethnicity?

A. Under no circumstances shall officers ask an individual to identify their race or ethnicity.
B. Only the subjects of consensual encounters.
C. Only after the individual has been placed in custody and given the Miranda admonition.
D. When there is no other way to determine the individual's race or ethnicity.

APD Policies; p. 215, 329.8, Note

6. The purpose or objective of a statement or confession is to:

A. develop a prosecutable case.
B. corroborate the elements and details of an incident.
C. identify the elements of the crime.
D. ensure the admissibility of physical and documentary evidence.

APD Policies; p. 238, 403.4, para. 1

7. When a search warrant is for computer equipment that is to be examined in the computer forensics lab, the case agent should contact the DART Unit or the ______ Unit to obtain information on the proper wording of the computer search warrant before taking the search warrant to a magistrate for issuance.

A. Digital Forensics
B. White Collar Crimes
C. Child Abuse
D. Special Investigations

APD Policies; p. 311, 405.3.1 (d)

8. Which of the following statements about Hate Crime Enhancements is correct?

A. Investigators can only enhance misdemeanor crimes when sufficient evidence exists that the crime was motivated by bias or prejudice. Felonies can be enhanced only by prosecutors.
B. The decision for Hate Crime enhancement can be made only by employees holding the rank of Lieutenant or higher.
C. Officers cannot enhance the level of a crime at the time of booking even if there is sufficient evidence that the crime was motivated by bias or prejudice.
D. The offense of Felony Hate Crime shall be automatically enhanced.

APD Policies; p. 401, 438.4 (a)

9. In what way do "authentic" leaders approach the Success Gap, the perceived distance between successful people and those who are less successful?

A. They encourage people to define success for themselves.
B. They find multiple ways to achieve success.
C. They don't pay attention to the concept of success.
D. They work hard to close that gap.

Great Questions; p. 34, paras. 5, 6

10. The highest level of listening is:

A. Active listening.
B. Global listening.
C. Divergent listening.
D. Strategic listening.

Great Questions; p. 50, para. 5

11. The question that John Maxwell asks more than any other is:

A. How can we make things better?
B. What do you think?
C. What is our goal?
D. Are you sure?

Great Questions; p. 56, para. 2

12. Leadership is:

A. power - control over people and situations.
B. productivity - the ability to get things done.
C. influence - the ability of one person to influence others to follow his or her lead.
D. coaching - the ability to improve the actions and conditions of others.

Great Questions; p. 115, para. 3

13. One basic principle to which there must be full adherence is that:

A. the interrogation of suspects should follow, not precede, an investigation conducted to the full extent permissible by the allowable time and circumstances of the particular case.
B. the investigator conducting the investigation must be the lead investigator in the case, the investigator who has all of the evidence and facts at their fingertips.
C. the investigator should never, if at all possible, begin an investigation without at least some amount of physical evidence.
D. there are great benefits to be derived from leaving the suspect with some reason to believe he or she had the upper hand in the early stages of interrogation.

Reid; p. 19, last. para.

14. The assumption of guilt approach in the interview possesses the desirable element of surprise. As a result:

A. the suspect does not have an alibi prepared.
B. the interviewee's spontaneous remarks usually provide the interviewer with new information.
C. the guilty lack composure and may disclose the truth about certain pertinent information or perhaps even confess.
D. the interview puts the suspect on the defensive and the likelihood increases of implicating other suspects in the illegal act(s).

Reid; p. 39, para. 2

15. Characteristics of speech falling outside of the spoken word is what type of communication channel?

A. Nonverbal.
B. Tangential.
C. Indirect.
D. Paralinguistic.

Reid; p. 80, para. 2

16. Step one of Reid's Nine Steps of Interrogation involves:

A. a presentation of the incriminating facts and evidence that establish that a crime has been committed.
B. an exploration of any links between the suspect and elements of the crime.
C. the introduction of a theme to the interrogation.
D. a direct, positively presented confrontation of the suspect with a statement that he is considered to be the person who committed the offense.

Reid; p. 121, para. 3

17. If a person threatens to commit any offense involving violence to any person or property with intent to cause impairment or interruption of public communications, public transportation, public water, gas, or power supply or other public service, the person commits the offense of:

A. Disruption of Public Service.
B. Public Interference.
C. Tampering.
D. Terroristic Threat.

Penal Code; p. 57, Sec. 22.07 (a)(4)

18. In each case enumerated, where arrests may be lawfully made without warrant, the officer or person making the arrest is justified in adopting all the measures which he might adopt in cases of arrest under warrant, except that an officer making an arrest without a warrant may not:

A. enter a residence to make an arrest unless a person who resides in the residence consents to the entry or exigent circumstances require entry without consent or warrant.
B. make arrests when the issuance of a citation is appropriate.
C. engage in a high speed pursuit, placing officers, suspects and the public at risk.
D. act solely upon information provided by a witness, informant or suspect.

Code of Criminal Procedures; p. 270, Art. 14.05 (1)(2)

19. Drug tests may be taken upon the agreement of any two supervisors that there is a reasonable basis for a suspicion that: An Officer is presently under the influence of illegal drugs or inhalants; An Officer has possession of illegal drugs or inhalants; or:

A. An Officer has completed a drug or alcohol rehabilitation program within the previous two years.
B. An Officer has been associated or involved with others who were using or under the influence of illegal drugs or inhalants.
C. An Officer was involved in a motor vehicle collision, on- or off-duty, requiring medical treatment or hospitalization of one or more passengers in the vehicle driven by the Officer or the other vehicle(s) involved in the collision.
D. All of the above.

Meet & Confer; p. 35, Article 15, Section 4 (a)(b)(c)

20. Which of the following is not listed as a purpose of Citizen Oversight?

A. To assure timely, fair, impartial, and objective administrative review of complaints against police officers, while protecting the individual rights of officers and citizens.
B. To provide an independent and objective review of the policies and procedures of the Austin Police Department.
C. To provide a primary, but not exclusive, location for accepting administrative complaints of officer misconduct.
D. To ensure citizen participation in the conduct of investigations of officer misconduct.

Meet & Confer; p. 36, Article 16, Section 1 (b)(1)(2)(3)


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